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If the largest share holder only holds 9%, the people who own the other 91% can outvote him or her.
At least 10% of share votes are necessary to request a special shareholder meeting. So if this person only has 9%, they can't even request a special shareholder meeting.
9% is not a majority or a controlling interest.
Anonymous Dude
The unwillingness of the other shareholders to sell prevents InBev from becoming the majority owner. The largest shareholder may or may not have a controlling interest in the acquired company. It depends entirely on the interests and disposition of the other shareholders.
pmarkowitz
the entity that owns the most shares does not become the "owner " of a corporation they become the controlling shareholder. Owning the most shares can give someone "controlling interest" ,and if you own shares in a company you are in effect an owner of a portion of that company.The number of shares you own divided into the total number shares issued by the company is the percentage of ownership you would have in that company. In effect everyone who owns shares in a company is an owner and has rights to vote on major decisions in shareholder meetings. The only thing preventing someone from gaining controlling interest in a company is that usually the majority of shares ( controlling Interest ) is held or owned by someone high up smart enough not to let go of more than 49% of the total shares in that company.
Learned guy
Share market follows certain regulations. There are authorities to control hostile take overs etc. Now a days with the regulations it is almost impossible to buy majority stakes without fulfilling conditions. Not always majority share holders become bosses. There are instances where minority stake holders kept top positions in companies. Latest pharma take over from India is an example for this.
ranger_822nd
all stockholders are owners -
what is important and relevant to what your asking is - having controlling interest -
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