Company A (me)
Company B (my client)
Company C (pass through company that has a relation ship with company D)
Company D is the fiannce company that financed the sell for Company "C"

"A" sold a product to "B", "C" financed the sell thorugh "D"
"B" rejected the product, "D" wrote the sell off
"C" wants to sue "A" for the cost of goods but "C" has never paid any money out of pocket for said goods, Does "C" have the right to sue "A". AFter "D"has written off the sell?
Additional Details
If the money was not paid "C" but to the manufacturer of the product, how can "C" sue "A" as "C" never paid for anything nor recieved any funds in reference to this transaction. "D" wrote the loss off and "C" is now trying to sue "A" for monies that it never paid out.