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RALPH HINRIK | Is "selling short" meaning selling other peoples shares on a declining market? ? |
& then buying them back at a low price & thus replacing them after making the profit! Is this not criminal?. |
 |
 
minchy_me
|
yes
we can say you are seling stocks of other people,because u don't have tht stock in ur portfolio and u going to sell it. so it means if u sell first then u have to cover it later at any cost no matter market goes down or not. if u don't then u will be penalised for tht with 15% of the total amount u sold.
Its always risky to go for short selling. |
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Steve B
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Unlike normal buying & selling, Share trading has historically operated on a 'settlement period' basis ...
During any one period brokers and investors would buy and sell shares multiple times .. at the end of each period, the 'net' effect was worked out and the trades 'settled' .. for example, if I purchased 100 shares and then sold 90 during the same period, at the end I would receive the (net) 10 shares and pay only the difference between the buy & sell costs ...
This allows what is know as 'margin trading' ... if I buy a million shares and sell a million shares during the same period, at the end I pay for zero shares - indeed all I pay for is any fall in the price (or, in a rising market, I collect my 'winnings') ...
Of course my 'broker' will insist I put down some sort of 'deposit' (the margin) just in case the million shares drop in price a lot between the buy & sell ..
Now consider what happens in a falling market .. if I sell 'first' and buy 'second' at the end of the period I will get paid for the drop in price ..
In the 'old days' (paper Certificates) no-one would know if I had a million shares to sell or not = since I never had to actually 'deliver' the million shares (because at the end of the period, the sell / buy cancel out and I deliver / collect zero shares) it was quite possible to 'short' a stock without anyone being any the wiser ..
Of course, these days it's all a nonsense .. shares are traded electronically and can be 'transferred' between 'owners' instantly .. so perhaps it's time to apply the law and prosecute people who sell things they don't actually own .. |
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Eddy T
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This a legal form of cheating. |
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raysor
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It's not criminal. It is perfectly legitimite, unless, of course acommpanied by some sort of Market abuse. It is possible to buy shares with no money on T+10 settlement and then sell those shares on the same settlement without paying for them. Going short is selling the stock you haven't got (you don't get paid) and buying them back to effect settlement (UK anyway, I don't know about you crazy lot in US)
It hasn't been banned; that's just the financials. |
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piet lul
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it is now. |
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Dad's found yer scoo'er
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A sharp practice but it's not been criminal up till now. It's been banned now on both sides of the Atlantic, at least in the short term. |
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London NW3
 |
It's allowed because it is thought that if it's a healthy company,there will not be enough sellers,as the moment it goes down,the SP is thought of as a bargain by others and buyers move in,to lift the SP.Making it very high risk for short sellers.
So the company needs to be struggling for sellers to bring in more sellers etc,rather than sellers,eventually enticing tons of buyers.
Any company with massive borrowings is at risk,ie,HBOS,B&B,Baratts,Taylor Wimpey.Because there is a credit squeeze.As the SP moves down,the more expensive credit is to that company.Low SP means high cost of borrowings,and a company with lots of debt is at risk.So one seller,triggers another seller until death.
The wall st crash of 1929 was mainly triggered by short selling. |
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